Questions about a Judgement which has been paid in full

[mizzles]

Hello

I am 41 yrs old and have had a 750 score all my life. I had one court judgement go against me for around $2500 in a landscaping dispute a couple of months ago, and was payed in full immediately.

1) Can this be removed off my credit report on the grounds of "paid in full" ?
2) If not, what's the best route to take
3) if I write the credit bureaus, if I can't use "paid in full" as a reason that what reason should I ask for it to be removed?
4) The court decision is under appeal, if I win the appeal will that make any difference?

I've heard conflicting information about the "7 year rule", I've heard that only applies to bankruptcies and others have told me it applies to judgements also, so not sure what route to take here....

Thanks

Miz

[Lian]

FCRA 605(a)(5)(2) clearly defines 7 years from date of entry of the judgment as the CR exclusion date. Paying of judgements, or other types of reported delinquencies, does not result in deletion of the prior reporting, provided it was accurate.

You can always motion the court to vacate the judgment. Usually that requires some showing of deficiency in the judgment or its process, such as improper service of notice. However, you can motion solely on the grounds of payment as a basis for dismissal. Some judges will routinely grant such motions, while others wont. It depends on the judge and the practice in their jurisdiction.

If you can obtain support from the judgment creditor in at least not opposing any such motion, that often helps. Give it a shot.

Absent vacating the judgment itself, it can remain after it is paid.